Variations on this topic seemingly keep coming up in art discussions: a form of compensation to artists/owners long after the piece was original sold. You can get the general gist in the article.
The point being that the family selling the Picasso sold the painting at what might be construed as FMV at the time (the article doesn't say - Picasso was certainly famous in 1938 but I haven't a clue what his work went for at that time). Picasso's work wasn't worth $100-$200M in 1938, so if the fa
So is this how you approach all agreements - shake hands up front with full knowledge, thus creating “acceptance”, and then force the other guy to chase your later intentional violations?
Or is this just how you’d treat Barry Smith?