What are the rules on this? Is the seller required to show PMs to prove who was first?
Its usually timestamped with who ever puts up the I'll take it first, over agreements in PM if the seller never post something like "sold per PM" or buyer saying "I'll take per PM", etc. Thats usually how its done,but can be different depending on what rules the seller post in their thread, since they could make a rule saying they would go by the time stamp of the agreement made in PM, and not the I'll take it in the thread. This guy however didn't even post any rules about how he handles timestamps which is really one of the most frustrating things to deal with, when this occurs. If nothings posted about it, I assume it goes to the default manner I mentioned above. I also hate the fact he's having the customer pay the Paypal fee instead of just working it into the price.
I guess my question is more if the seller is obligated to actually produce "evidence" of a PM I'll take it being time stamped before an I'll take it in a thread.